woody234 Posted March 30, 2009 Share Posted March 30, 2009 my friend told me if you have a house in france which is not furnished and you live in the uk then you only have to pay for 1 of the taxes but im not sure which 1 it is, is this true Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gosub Posted March 31, 2009 Share Posted March 31, 2009 You will always have to pay the Fonciere tax, but if the house is unhabitable. I don't think you will get away with saying that it's unfurnished[:D]and if you could agree it with your Mairie, you may not need to pay the habitation tax. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chancer Posted March 31, 2009 Share Posted March 31, 2009 Uninhabited on 1st January = no liability to taxes habitation or relevance audiovisuelle for that year.In practice the property needs to be empty and unfurnished otherwise winter holidays would be very popular [:D]If you have been billed and:or already paid as I had done get an attestation from your Mairie and go to the Hôtel des impots and ask for a degrévement. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Pommier Posted March 31, 2009 Share Posted March 31, 2009 I don't think uninhabited is sufficient, I think it needs to be uninhabitable. If that's the case you need to ask the Maire for an attestation to that effect which you can then send to the Tresor Public. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Patf Posted March 31, 2009 Share Posted March 31, 2009 I think Pommier is right. Tax d'Habitation is based on the notional rental value of the house, and if it's uninhabitable obviously it can't be rented out! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chancer Posted March 31, 2009 Share Posted March 31, 2009 Incorrect.An example, a tenant who is renting an apartment, or holds the lease even if he is not there on Jan 1st is responsible for the tax d'habitation for the whole year, if he moves out at the end of January he is not entitled to a refund.If the apartment is unoccupied on the 1st Jan the landlord is not imposable, if a tenant moves in on Jan 2nd he will not be imposable until the following year. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
woody234 Posted March 31, 2009 Author Share Posted March 31, 2009 thanks for replys, so does uninhabitable mean no furniture at all in the house like beds and sofas and tv but keep things like kitchen sink and bathroom furniture like toilet bathroom sink and shower Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Clair Posted March 31, 2009 Share Posted March 31, 2009 [quote user="woody234"]thanks for replys, so does uninhabitable mean no furniture at all in the house like beds and sofas and tv but keep things like kitchen sink and bathroom furniture like toilet bathroom sink and shower [/quote]No, that would be unfurnished. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BJSLIV Posted March 31, 2009 Share Posted March 31, 2009 As long as the property can be proved to be unfurnished as at 1 January there should be no liability to the Tax D'hab. if the electricity is disconnected then that would be even more proof.If the property has been empty for five years, then the Tax D'hab can in certain circumstances be reimposed. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gas Posted April 1, 2009 Share Posted April 1, 2009 If the property is your second home the tax is payable provided the property is CAPABLE of occupation and it is habitable. Tenants occupying the property on the 1st January on a permanent or semi-permanent basis are liable for the tax irrespective whether the property is furnished or unfurnished. The tax is not payable if the property is not occupied. The definition of occupation used by the tax authorities includes those properties capable of occupation. One would imagine that a lack of furniture combined with lack of utilities would indicate that the property is not capable of occupation and thus no tax would be payable. You make no mention of utilities in your message. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PaulT Posted April 1, 2009 Share Posted April 1, 2009 We bought our house on 26 Jan 2007. The previous owners, some how, had not been paying tax d'habitation. However, come September we received a bill for this tax.We paid it because it did not seem right that it had not been paid previously.Paul Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gas Posted April 1, 2009 Share Posted April 1, 2009 Was the bill in your name. ? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ron Avery Posted April 1, 2009 Share Posted April 1, 2009 [quote user="P2"]We bought our house on 26 Jan 2007. The previous owners, some how, had not been paying tax d'habitation. However, come September we received a bill for this tax.We paid it because it did not seem right that it had not been paid previously.Paul[/quote]Maybe they were exempt through age and/or income. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PaulT Posted April 2, 2009 Share Posted April 2, 2009 [quote user="Ron Avery"][quote user="P2"] We bought our house on 26 Jan 2007. The previous owners, some how, had not been paying tax d'habitation. However, come September we received a bill for this tax.We paid it because it did not seem right that it had not been paid previously.Paul[/quote]Maybe they were exempt through age and/or income.[/quote]Gas - the bill was in my name. At the signing the agent informed the Notaire that the previous owners were not paying Taxe D'hab. The Notaire then started talking about apportioning the Taxe Fonc (which would not be payable until later in the year). It seemed to me to be a little petty as they would be liable to under 4 weeks and me to the rest so I said that I would be responsible for the whole bill. Ron - they were not exempt - they were not of sufficient age nor income, they lived in the UK and the French house was a holiday home. They had never paid it in about 7 years of ownership - whether the previous owners had nothing in it and therefore exempt and they never told the authorities that they had furnished it.Paul Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ron Avery Posted April 2, 2009 Share Posted April 2, 2009 Paul, its quite normal for both the tax fonciere to be apportioned at a sale (in some cases the vendors waive it if its a short periopd) and for the tax people to be yonks behind with catching up with taxe habitation payments. We didn't pay tax hab for two years as previous owners were exempt through age and despite asking at the tax office about it, fearing a back bill, they just said "don't worry about it", seems your tax office is more on the ball. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Pierre Posted April 6, 2009 Share Posted April 6, 2009 Have a look at this page, you will better understand the "French council tax":http://www.sextantproperties.com/news/general/taxe-d-habitation-and-taxe-fonciere Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ron Avery Posted April 6, 2009 Share Posted April 6, 2009 Hmmmm First time I have heard the taxes fonciere referred to as "wealth tax", scope for some confusion there with the real thing, but where did this gem come from "Lastly, people aged between 60 and 75 benefit from a €100 (or more) reduction". Can "Pierre" in London explain this as its news to me[8-)]. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Pierre Posted April 7, 2009 Share Posted April 7, 2009 It is just a figure of speech, the more land you have in France the more taxe fonciere you pay. If you say that you pay a lot of taxe fonciere to a French guy he will know that you are quite wealthy (so as they intend to be quite jealous it is better to keep it for yourself :) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ron Avery Posted April 7, 2009 Share Posted April 7, 2009 and the second point taken from your website about 100€ deduction for 60 + year olds?? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Clair Posted April 7, 2009 Share Posted April 7, 2009 [quote user="Pierre"]If you say that you pay a lot of taxe fonciere to a French guy he will know that you are quite wealthy (so as they intend to be quite jealous it is better to keep it for yourself :)[/quote]Oh dear... [:(]And now we take a step in the land of sweeping generalisations... or are you revealing more about yourself than you intended to? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chancer Posted April 7, 2009 Share Posted April 7, 2009 I have come up against this myself Clair, when I thought that I was paying too much for my property I naively asked other people in similar size properties if they would mind telling me how much theirs was, much like I would ask in the UK "what band is your property?"After a while I twigged from all the evasive "my wife takes care of that etc" that I may have been indiscreet so I asked a trusted confidant who confirmed this. Refreshingly different from the London scene - "how much is your house worth, how much did you pay for it?"Pierre.I dispute your comment regarding how much land you have, the taxes are based on valeur locative as you well know, I wish what you said were true, the farmers and land owners around me pay far less! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Clair Posted April 7, 2009 Share Posted April 7, 2009 and of course, they were all jealous... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ron Avery Posted April 7, 2009 Share Posted April 7, 2009 "the taxes are based on valeur locative as you well know"." [:-))][8-)]????? Why do you say that, do you know him then? If he "knows it" then why say something different??? He is certainly right about the jealousy though!!The point I want him to clarify is the bit on their website about deductions for the over 60s. This is an old chestnut often raised on here, quoting from English language newspapers that quite frankly are not worth wrapping fish in, and UK based "French" property agents estate agents who are as equally ignorant of the rules. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chancer Posted April 7, 2009 Share Posted April 7, 2009 Good afternoon Ron![quote user="Ron Avery"]"the taxes are based on valeur locative as you well know"." [:-))][8-)]????? Why do you say that,- because I can, do you know him then? - no I don't. If he "knows it" then why say something different??? - you will have to ask him that question (assuming he wants to play) I am not a voyant [:)] [/quote] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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