Rob Roy Posted July 27, 2011 Share Posted July 27, 2011 In this day and age how do French banks get away with making a wife liable for her husband's overdraft (and vice versa) when it is not a joint account? I wonder if it has ever been challenged through the EU, or wherever one would do such a thing? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pachapapa Posted July 27, 2011 Share Posted July 27, 2011 The nature of the account is of little relevance. The nature of the marriage contract is of more consequence. Recourse on debt can be pursued up or down the family chain. So a loaded granny might have to pay the gambling debts of the grandson or indeed vice -versa.http://vosdroits.service-public.fr/F1196.xhtml Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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