graone Posted October 30, 2005 Share Posted October 30, 2005 Hi everyoneWe have just bought a property in Brittany.The property has 6 acres of agricultural land of which is of no use to us bar from keeping privacy to the home.We have allowed a local farmer to graze his cattle on the land to maintain keeping the grass down.He has asked if he can plant crops in the fields next year.Can anyone advise if this type of usage of my property entitles the farmer to claim the land for himself.ThanksGraham. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
essancee Posted October 30, 2005 Share Posted October 30, 2005 Hi - Lots of folk more knowledgable out there than me so I hope they can give you a more definitive answer, but ,by granting grazing rights you may have already given the farmer a right of precedence, and possible rights of pre emption if you come to sell. Was your property offered to SAFER before you bought it.? I would advise that you take legal advice and do not put anything in writing.Sorry to if this sounds a bit doom mongerish but I have heard a few cautionary tales on this subject. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
levisiteur Posted October 31, 2005 Share Posted October 31, 2005 HiI think you are quite right to be nervous.Just grazing cattle should not be a problem.But if you accept payment of any kind i.e. cash, cheque, bottle of wine, chicken etc you will have rented (loué) the land ,then you may have a problem. Also you pay the rates! The farmer has a good deal!I think if the farmer wants to plant crops I think proberly a contract like Prêt de usage may be a good idea say 5 years and you give him/her 6 months notice before the new year to quit if you need the land back.I am not an expert but a word with your Notaire could save you problems if you sell the property. Good luck! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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