Hi, Just to complicate matters further - Does anyone know if someone declares bankruptcy in UK ( for UK debts, loans and credit cards) if a property in France, bought in 2004, would be included and attached. Would there be any difference if the house was a primary residence.( They no longer own property in UK) I ask because someone said that a house in France does not 'belong' to Mum and Dad but is legally partly owned by the children as part of their inheritance and therefore could not be sold without their permission. Many thanks to all those knowledgable people out there! Ricci
