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Le pin's


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Could anyone remind me why the French spell this little word as "Le pin's"?    About a year ago I read an explanation which seemed perfectly logical at the time.  I thought I was bound to remember, but now all I can recall is that the apostrophe is not an apostrophe!  Possibly it indicated a foreign word?  Not to be confused with le pin or les pins?  All I could tell our elderly French teacher whothought there was a misprint in a text was that the word le pin's was correct French!

Julia

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Maybe they're borrowing directly from what they see in the UK. A greengrocer near where I lived in east London advertised "Apple's", "Banana's" and, most worryingly, "Lick's" (poirreaux). His other plurals were fine. Strange.

It niggles when I see such mistakes here. I'm outraged when I see the same in English speaking countries (country's?)

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I did a bit of research and I found this:

Pin's : 1989. Mot formé à partir de pin, épingle, et avec une apostrophe faussement anglaise afin de maintenir

la prononciation de la consonne. La proposition a été épinglette. (Yeah, right...)

at

http://monsu.desiderio.free.fr/curiosites/faux-ang.html

which is quite an interesting page.
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