Mikjo Posted March 8, 2005 Share Posted March 8, 2005 A colleague of ours owns a small house in Normandy. She would like to pass a 75% share of the property to her only son and retain a 25% share. Can this be done and, if so, how could it be done? Would there be any tax implications? Presumably the property could not then be sold without the consent of both parties? Grateful for any information on this subject.Mikjo Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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