oldgit72 Posted March 30, 2006 Share Posted March 30, 2006 If one has a 'bolt hole' in the UK and allows free use of the property by a son, do the French tax authorities assume a notional rental income from the property even if there is none? Thanks in advance for any replies Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Will Posted March 30, 2006 Share Posted March 30, 2006 The answer, at least as far as we, our French accountant, and our tax offices on both sides of the channel are concerned, is No. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
oldgit72 Posted March 30, 2006 Author Share Posted March 30, 2006 Thanks Will for the prompt reply Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Please sign in to comment
You will be able to leave a comment after signing in
Sign In Now