I am an English man working abroad (where I pay taxes on my income). I spend some time at my girlfriends house in France and some time in the United Kingdom, however the majority of the year I reside in the country I’m working in. I do not own property in France. My understanding of the law is as follows. A taxpayer is deemed to be tax resident in France if any one of the following tests is satisfied: - They spend 183 days or more each year in France. - Their principal business activity in France. - Their habitual residence is in France. - Their "centre of economic interest" is in France. I do not believe I fall into any of these categories, but I am unsure of how far "centre of economic interest" is taken. For example, I have some material possessions (clothes, etc) at the girlfriends house - would this be enough to deem that France is my centre of economic interest? Am I correct that as I am paying taxes abroad and do not fall under the categories above that I do not have to complete a French tax form, or am I missing something? Any help would be appreciated, Jeff