Gyn_Paul Posted July 2, 2007 Share Posted July 2, 2007 We have some Jersey friends (that is resident in Jersey) whohave - for years - had a holiday home in France. They keep itexclusively for family holdays and never let it out. They have been told by a 'friend' that as Jersey isn't in the EU theywill be liable for a notional income tax on the French house (includingyears of back tax). How can this be if they have never derived any income from it in the first place?Has anyone else heard of this?If it is indeed the case, can someone point me in the right direction to 'chapter-and-verse' for confirmation please?p. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BJSLIV Posted July 2, 2007 Share Posted July 2, 2007 There is certainly provision for in the French tax code to impute an income of three times the notional rental value of any property owned by a resident of a country with which France does not have a double taxation treaty.http://www.globalpropertyguide.com/country.php?id=68&cid=eu&cat=4As the Channel islands do not normally get involved with such treaties, to protect their mainstream business(!) I suppose this liability could apply to your friends. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Pickles Posted July 3, 2007 Share Posted July 3, 2007 The chapter and verse is contained in this document in French, the non-residents part of which is sent out to all non-residents who have been registered with the Fisc. IIRC, the provision for an assumption of notional income on property owned by non-residents domiciled in countries with which France has no double taxation treaty is of long standinghttp://doc.impots.gouv.fr/aida/brochures_ir2007/Click on "non residents" in the index.Pickles Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Archived
This topic is now archived and is closed to further replies.