Stan Streason Posted November 16, 2009 Share Posted November 16, 2009 Taxe Fonciere and Habitacion.I know that TF is proportioned in the year of a new owner but TH is payable in full by the house owner in January.Please can someone confirm for the bills currently being received the "year" they relate to please.I purchased in Feb and paid a proportion of TF to the previous owner. Whilst I initially presumed that this was paid in advance I subsequently understand that the current TF bills relate to 2009 and as I have already paid the previous owner, I have nothing to pay now.I had assumed I still had to pay the TH now (in advance of next Jan) but chatting to my local Mayor on Friday evening he said (but not particularly confidently I thought) that the current TH bills relate to 2009 also and is therfore payable by the previous owner leaving me again with nothing to pay now.Good news like this never happens to me so I would be grateful for confirmation from someone who has their TH bill in front of them.Thanks Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sunday Driver Posted November 16, 2009 Share Posted November 16, 2009 The tax d'habitation liability arises on 1 January of the tax year and the bills are sent out in the autumn, so we are talking about the 2009 bills here. As the previous owner occupied the house on 1 January, he pays the 2009 TdH bill.Next year's (2010) bill will be down to you. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Stan Streason Posted November 16, 2009 Author Share Posted November 16, 2009 S D. Thanks for that. Given that in the UK everyone collects taxes in advance the concept of payment in arrears just seems so counter intuative to me.As I said earlier thats a bit of a result because I had always earmarked about €1,500 to pay out now that I no longer have to. It normally works the other way round. (And yes I must remember this when I sell). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
johnnyboy Posted November 19, 2009 Share Posted November 19, 2009 Blimey Stan,do you live in a chateau or suchlike? Our house is a barn conversion of approx 230sq m, albeit in a tiny hamlet,but our TDH is going to be €734 for the year.We were a bit miffed when we saw our TF was €647 earlier and compared with some friends in similar situation and theirs was €174.Still think we're well ahead of what we paid in UK by about £1,000 though and that was on a 4 bed house!A bit worried about this plan to reduce central government involvement in local/regional finance,can only mean that local taxes will increase like those in UK did.Still think life here is so much better anyway!Johnnyboy. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Stan Streason Posted November 20, 2009 Author Share Posted November 20, 2009 [quote user="johnnyboy"]Blimey Stan,do you live in a chateau or suchlike? Our house is a barn conversion of approx 230sq m, albeit in a tiny hamlet,but our TDH is going to be €734 for the year.[/quote]I was thinking about both. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nomoss Posted November 20, 2009 Share Posted November 20, 2009 [quote user="Stan Streason"] I purchased in Feb and paid a proportion of TF to the previous owner. [/quote]I don't understand why you paid a proportion of TF, as seller would not have received the bill at that time. Or was he anticipating receiving it this year and making sure he had your proportion in advance by calculating this on the bill for 2008? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chancer Posted November 20, 2009 Share Posted November 20, 2009 I bought my property direct from the liquidator in April 2004, on the 1st October that year I received a letter from a Mandataire judiciare saying that the liqidator had sent him that years avis de taxes foncières and inviting me to pay my proportion according to his calculation.I guess that this is standard procedure but would probably only happen if the seller requested it of the notaire after receiving the bill which may not happen all the time.Given the amount of vices cachés that the average UK buyer finds subsequent to moving in I reckon a lot of French sellers decide not to ruffle the feathers of Le pigeon Anglais [6] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nomoss Posted November 20, 2009 Share Posted November 20, 2009 On the three occasions I have purchased in France, later in the year I was asked to pay a proportion of TF, either directly by the seller or via the notaire who handled the sale.I assumed this was the norm until I sold a property and the buyer refused to pay (about 9 months) TF, on the grounds that this was not mentioned in the Acte de Vente.Since then I make sure that responsibility for this payment is specifically agreed in the Acte. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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