Humptydingo Posted April 16, 2004 Share Posted April 16, 2004 A friend of mine (NOT ME HONEST!) has just split from her live in partner of 15 years. She is French and owns the house that they lived in here in France, having bought it before he arrived on the scene. He is insisting he is entitled to half of the house. Although he contributed to utility bills etc. she has always paid for improvements etc. herself. I don't think he is entitled to anything but she is worried to the point of a nervious breakdown. All this has just happened and I have advised her to take legal advice. At the moment she is stressed up and frightened to leave the house. Does anyone know anything about these things so that I can at least reassure her or perhaps recommend a french web-site that I can look at for her. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Val_2 Posted April 17, 2004 Share Posted April 17, 2004 A slightly different scenario but my closest neighbour lives in a rented communal bungalow and has a live-in-lover who is not the father of her two teenage children (results of two previous marriages). She told me that everything is in her name on the rental agreement just in case he clears off and she is then covered if he tries to claim any recompense or loss of somewhere to live apart from his personal belongings. I know it is not the same scenario but I would think it would benefit your friend to get the advice of the local notaire as to whether her partner has any legal claim which I personally don't believe he has if she was the one who bought the property,however you never know these days with all the changes of the law each year. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Stuart Posted April 17, 2004 Share Posted April 17, 2004 Personally, I don't understand why he shouldn't have a claim to part of the property. After all, if the boot were on the other foot, I would have expected her to have the right morally to make a claim on what had been "their" home. I am sure that, in the UK, this would be the case.Stuart Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Teamedup Posted April 19, 2004 Share Posted April 19, 2004 Even when marrying in France one can take a contract and what belongs to the person pre marriage remains theirs. So I cannot see a 'partner', a term which has no meaning legally really would have any claim whatsoever, especially in France. I reckon that this would be laughed out of court here. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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