NormanH Posted October 7, 2016 Share Posted October 7, 2016 I have often posted of my discontent that I cannot vote in UK general elections despite being a British citizen.This MAY (deliberate pun) change:https://www.theguardian.com/politics/2016/oct/07/expats-given-vote-for-life-uk-elections-government-saysThough of course it has been promised before.In any case the simple test of whether a Tory is telling lies to get votes is"Watch my lips" [:P] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gardian Posted October 7, 2016 Share Posted October 7, 2016 To me, the acid test of whether somebody should have the right to vote in any election in any country, should be whether they are tax-assessible.Accordingly, if that rule were to be applied, Mrs G would have that right in the UK (because as a former civil servant, her income remains UK-assessible) but I wouldn't.In France, we would both have that right.Just my opinion of course, but I believe that there's logic to such an approach and you Norman would also 'benefit' accordingly. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NormanH Posted October 7, 2016 Author Share Posted October 7, 2016 "No taxation without representation", but "No representation without taxation" also? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
idun Posted October 7, 2016 Share Posted October 7, 2016 This week I have read that article and also heard a couple of reports that it would be reduced from 15 years to 5!We had 20 years of which we took full advantage. a voir!!! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HoneySuckleDreams Posted October 7, 2016 Share Posted October 7, 2016 [quote user="NormanH"]"No taxation without representation", but "No representation without taxation" also?[/quote] Would that mean that all the "immigrants" paying tax in the UK would get a vote as well ? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NormanH Posted October 7, 2016 Author Share Posted October 7, 2016 It says on the tin "No taxation without representation", so I leave you to interpret it.Mu opinion is that if one pay taxes one should have a say in choosing the people who will spend them and the things on which they will be spent. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andyh4 Posted October 7, 2016 Share Posted October 7, 2016 While I understand the logic of the link between taxation and voting rights, that would have granted me voting rights in 3 countries at the same time, which makes me feel somewhat uncomfortable. And how do you define taxation? If someone rightly and correctly fills out a tax declaration but is charged no tax because they fall below whatever lower limit, would that exclude them - I think not, but how to define a rule that cannot be manipulated.While nationality has its flaws, it does seem to provide a stable base for voting rights. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NormanH Posted October 8, 2016 Author Share Posted October 8, 2016 You have a good point. It would be nice to have just that, but at the moment I am both British and pay taxes in the UK, but still can't vote as I have so often said. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Harnser Posted October 8, 2016 Share Posted October 8, 2016 "My opinion is that if one pay taxes one should have a say in choosing the people who will spend them and the things on which they will be spent"Absolutely- if my not inconsiderable tax money in all it's different forms is acceptable to the government - so should my vote be acceptable to that same government. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rabbie Posted October 9, 2016 Share Posted October 9, 2016 If one accepts "no taxation without representation" then it follows logically that all tax payers should have the vote even if they are not citizens. Clearly this can lead to absurdities if taken to extremes but where do you draw the line? Also do you allow citizens who do not pay tax to vote? Which taxes should be counted for voting for voting purposes? The issue is clearly not as simple as it initially appears.Should non-residents have a say in who governs the country when they have voted with their feet to leave the country. The ex-pats were only given the vote by Thatcher because she believed on balance it would favour the Conservatives.In any British General Election a majority of seats are unchanged so in reality a lot of votes have no effect so without electoral reform the system is flawed Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
AlbertInFrance Posted October 11, 2016 Share Posted October 11, 2016 [quote user="andyh4"]While I understand the logic of the link between taxation and voting rights, that would have granted me voting rights in 3 countries at the same time, which makes me feel somewhat uncomfortable. ...While nationality has its flaws, it does seem to provide a stable base for voting rights.[/quote]I currently have voting rights in two countries. Doesn't worry me in the slightest. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
idun Posted October 11, 2016 Share Posted October 11, 2016 Well I suppose that I could have said that I had voting rights in two countries too, for many years, as I could vote in local and EU elections in France and UK general elections. BUT I never had the right to vote in the same sort of election in both countries.......... do you???? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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