Lavie Posted April 19, 2005 Share Posted April 19, 2005 An unmarried british couple with no children live together in a house in France that is owned and bought by just one of them.They split up.Can one partner then claim 1/2 of the house etc even though it wasn't bought in their name?I know co-habitation rights were largely abolished in the UK some years ago, but what is the situation in france? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Teamedup Posted April 21, 2005 Share Posted April 21, 2005 I have a friend who married a bloke who already owned a property and when they divorced she had no claim on the property at all. So frankly I cannot see why a concubin(e) should be able to claim a thing. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Archived
This topic is now archived and is closed to further replies.