does providing small services result in any rights over land?

[Steve Last]

There's quite a well known warning to buyers who may have aquired land with a property but don't want to use it for agriculture or anything else, that allowing a friendly neighbour to graze it or similar in return for a "nominal" gift of produce or something, may create rights for the farmer because he has "paid" for the usage.  My question is whether the reverse is true.

In our case we have a largely absent neighbour, and we have (with her full agreement) been looking after a tiny patch of garden which is some way from her main property. We have watered, weeded and planted it for the last 5 years.  However she is elderly and often a bit critical of what we have done although she shows no interest in doing anything herself. The question is whether as a result of our exepnditure on it WE now have built up any "rights" over this little patch (it's only about 4 square metres!) which we would like to buy if it ever came on the market, e.g. after she passes on!!

Steve 

[Nick Trollope]

IANAL. but;

I assume that you are not Farmers.

Prior to her death, probably. Post death, probably not. Although the cost of buying 4 sqM of land would far outweigh the value of it. Are you sure it is really 4sqM? 6'x6'?

 

[Steve Last]

Thought that might be the case, but just curious!!

Slipped a digit on the size, it's actually about 15 sq metres.

Thanks!

Steve