Hi, We have been following the forum for a while now as we are planning to buy in France in the not too distance future. We are therefore trying to gather information together now, so we should be better informed when the time arrives. My husband is early sixty's, so have a few years before we retire fully to France, but we are planning to buy a couple of years before then, so we can move in full time when the pension starts and the house is ready. We have a couple of questions regarding the way we buy the property, if anyone can advise us on these points would be great. Our situation is we are UK married and we have two children in their thirty's (both ours, not stepchildren or adopted) Please correct me if I am wrong but, I believe the rules were changed recently to allow spouses to pass on to each other all their estate, with no tax payable on death? I understand from a tax point of view in the long term this may not be the best way, and that if some of the deceased estate was left to the children on the first death, then they would each receive a tax free allowance on their inheritance, from each parent? So, does anyone know which of these ways is how things would work on first death. A If the house was brought in joint names both owning an equal share, the remaining spouse would receive the deceased spouses estate fully and with no tax to pay, but on the death of the second spouse then the property would be left 50/50 to the children who would have a tax free allowance of 100K euros each, then would have to pay tax on any remaining value. B If the house was brought in joint names both owning an equal share, on the death of the first spouse is the house treaded as each spouse owning 50%, therefore the deceased spouse’s 50% would be split up according to French inheritance law, with 1/3 each for the children and a third for the surviving spouse. Purely as an example, on a house with a value of 600K , would it work out that each spouse owned 300K, then on first death that 300K would be divided in line with French law, with 100K going to each child and 100K to the surviving spouse, therefore no tax to pay on death. On the death of the second spouse, the children already owned 100k each of the property and the second spouse owned 400K. This 400K is then split 50/50 to the children, each would again receive 100K tax allowance each and each would have to pay tax on the 100K they received. Is it this straightforward, or are we missing anything? We have read that it is important to set up how you wish things to happen at the time of buying. Sorry its a grim subject for our first post. Thanks, Julie.