under the cosh!

Idun Unfortunately it is not quite that simple, since i am not sure that I can be afford it until a final settlement is reached, hence why i wanted to wait until then.

1. The property belongs to both of us, as i say it is jointly owned. 2. It was an error by the court that it ordered that it marketed for sale, this was pointed out to the ex but she still proceeded with marketing it for sale. 3.The ex wants to sell it asap rather than wait for a final settlement and she is aware that i want to retain it and take over the mortgage. 4. No she canot sell without my say so. 5. The two offers i am told through her solicitors made to date fall way short of the asking price.

There are a number of issues:- 1, two offers have been recieved, i have not seen either in writing, although my ex has. 2. my e mails made it plain to the estate agent that despite being ordered by a court to market it for sale, i wanted to retain the property and until there was a final settlement and hence a sale would not go through quickly.

Clearly as a subsequent correspondent said "you are being very naive". The issue is the estate agent doing things without authority, with a bias to one party and what if any impact there is on his mandate. If would be far more useful if you would answer the question!

Clearly as a subsequent correspondent said "you are being very naive". The issue is the estate agent doing things without authority, with a bias to one party and what if any impact there is on his mandate. If would be far more useful if you would answer the question!

My ex wife and i are joint owners of an apartment which we have put up for sale. My ex commissioned the agent in my absence BUT did not explain the sale is part of a forthcoming divorce settlement. I made subsequent contact with the agent and have now discovered that my e mail exchanges with them have been forwarded to my ex, which to me is a breech of client confidentiality. What can i do about the agent, who has a three months mandate and is there any re-dress???

Many thanks for response, gives me some idea as to how to proceed.

No, we are both UK residents

I am told by a local estate agent that the overall gain on the property since initial purchase off plan at an agreed price in 2004 is about 50,000 euro.

I have looked into this too and in my experience the cheapest transfer for small amounts say below £250 (although it varies according to destination and currency) is to use the Post Office Moneygram service above this amount it starts to get up to standard bank charges of £25 per transaction. My understanding is regular transfers are still free with HIFX

I jointly own an apartment which we have owned for 6 years. My partner now wants to sell their share, which i would ideally like to purchase. What are the French CGT implications of this ownership transfer which would amount to around 70,000 euro?

Many thanks for your help, if you see my other post today, you will understand why i was clutching at straws - Thanks again

Many Thanks to respondents, unfortunately i am stuck with an ET.

Hi Bob T This is currently my secondary residence and hence i do not fill in a french tax return.

I noticed from reading another post that Habitation Taxe may not be payable by someone aged over 60. Does this also apply with a uk joint owner, as i am 62 and my wife is under 60?